Browse all practice questions for the ABM Initial Qualification Training (IQT) Block 3 Practice Test. Search by topic, open any question and review its full explanation, then test yourself in the practice quiz.

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  • Which Track Attention is associated with the display shown when a track changes its local M5 response?
  • MSC modes are available on both the E-3B and E-3C models.
  • What is the Network Time Reference (NTR)?
  • Which statement best describes ELS/BTH implementation?
  • Radar strobes correlated to a self-passive or cooperative passive track will appear as ______ lines.
  • What is the abbreviation for the Positive Friendly Indicator used in ID criteria?
  • Which description describes OFF MSC?
  • Which Statement Is True About The Network Time Reference (NTR)?
  • IFF BEAM SPLIT LIMIT is displayed when the number of IFF Beam Split reports exceeds which threshold?
  • During which operation must you not transmit on mission identification systems during contact?
  • The purpose of the IFF modes of interrogation fields (Alpha, Beta, and Gamma) in the IFF control options is to
  • What radar is affected by range rate?
  • Which label corresponds to the description Short Slant PD ELSCAN Passive With Adaptive MCS Active?
  • If two detections have very similar Doppler shift and azimuth location and are close in range, they are probable multipath detections from a single target.
  • What are the benefits of pulse coding/pulse compression of the PD radar?
  • Which team will Advise the ART of Strobe Bearings, Power Levels, and Affected Radars/Lobes?
  • To fulfill the mode 2 match contributor in the combat ID application, the SIF data for the requested track must be loaded into one of which two applications?
  • Where would you view all local and remote EA and Jamming requests in the ABM interface?
  • Which aircrew members are normally tasked to establish Link 11?
  • Which item is included in the minimum IFF equipment?
  • Alpha, Beta, and Gamma fields are part of IFF interrogation controls. What is their primary function?
  • Which label describes NEL/OFF?
  • This is displayed when a track sends a special position indicator (flash) received via IFF
  • What is a one-time transmission of information?
  • Reducing the Minimum Velocity (MV) value to decrease detection capability for low-velocity targets will also decrease background pulse Doppler clutter.
  • In Link 11 operations, the Data Net Control Station (DNCS) is described as which of the following roles?
  • Which role is responsible for maintaining a clear picture within the link with minimal conflicts and omissions, and for ICO accuracy, timeliness, quality, and frontline track supervision?
  • PU Number Describes Which Of The Following?
  • How is maximum BTH radar range measured during radar checkout?
  • A track with an ID of Friend that previously replied with a valid Mode 5 is no longer replying with a valid M5. The M5 contributor is weighted as high in the active combat ID ruleset and there are no other contributors fulfilled. What will happen to the Track's ID?
  • The statement 'Do not radiate the mission radar at or below FL180 due to the potential for conflict with Visual Flight Rules (VFR) traffic that may pass closer than 1,300 feet vertically and 650 feet horizontally' is True or False?
  • Which Hot Key, IAW OSK/OG Standard Profile is used to initiate the Request Hostile ID Option?
  • What does JU stand for in Link 16 terminology?
  • Which area is defined as prohibited for tracking?
  • What is the Data Net Control Station (DNCS)?
  • What is always the optimum CMD_EL setting?
  • Which of the following is NOT a PD long slant radar mode?
  • Which statement is true about MSC modes?
  • Pulse Doppler targets that fall beyond the instrumented range are called what?
  • What color are IFF strobes?
  • How many frequencies does JTIDS hop between in the 960-1215 MHz range?
  • What is the difference between the Passive (PSV) and OFF radar configurations or states?
  • What is the permissible speed tolerance for the optimum E-3 flight parameter?
  • What form contains all approved link activity information by OSKJ?
  • Which Mode 5 format must be active to receive Mode 1 data via Mode 5 interrogations?
  • If an E-3 is receiving EA indications and another E-3 is nearby, what ABM request initiates cooperative passive tracking?
  • Before transferring the radar, the ABM will verify and report to the ART that the E-3 altitude is between ___ and ___ for RF radiation.
  • Which of the following describes a unit that participates in the network but is not the control station?
  • Between AMSC thresholds and BTH thresholds, which is more sensitive?
  • The Mode 2 match contributor requires the SIF data for the requested track to be loaded into one of which two applications?
  • ROTODOME RPM is displayed when the rotation rate exceeds what threshold?
  • Which label corresponds to the description Adaptive MSC Only (PD Is Off)?
  • What internal messaging tab will all EA effects and reported sensor/mission impacts be posted in?
  • A Track with a friendly contributor weighted as high in the active combat ID ruleset will be changed to the ID of ____, assuming there are no other contributors fulfilled.
  • Setting Pending ID time to zero seconds will prevent automatic upgrade to Unknown, provided no other contributors are fulfilled.
  • Without DLMB blanking, the MSC receiver may desensitize due to land returns.
  • Interleave refers to the coordination of which two radar components?
  • Which E-3 mission radar set is capable of Pulse-MSC radar modes?
  • Which office approves all link activity for the 552 ACW?
  • Which label describes LEL/BTH?
  • Safe E-3 operation can be found in which document?
  • What happens when you operate the radar above 35k ft?
  • Link 16 operates on what frequency bands?
  • Which label corresponds to the description Long Slant PD ELSCAN Active with Pulse-BTH Active?
  • Which statement best describes the effect of short slant Doppler modes on pulse detection?
  • Which form contains all approved link activity information by OSKJ?
  • Which statement is true about the Default ruleset in relation to ABM's modification capabilities?
  • The Track Number (TN) identifies the reference number for which Link?
  • Which technique increases range resolution in BTH processing?
  • Which radar type is associated with range rate?
  • What is the Data Link Reference Number (DLRN)?
  • Which label corresponds to the description Short Slant PD ELSCAN Passive With Pulse-BTH Active?
  • Which office approves all link activity for the 552 ACW?
  • Which label describes LEL/AMS?
  • Newly created IFF sectors must be _____ in order to take effect.
  • Setting the Pending ID time to ___ seconds in the combat ID application will prevent the system from automatically upgrading tracks to the ID of unknown, assuming there are no other contributors fulfilled.
  • Which of the following are MSC maritime radar modes?
  • In which document can general knowledge about the E-3 be found?
  • What does FL 290 (29000 MSL) specify?
  • In the Default combat ID ruleset, ABM cannot modify the contributors and primary ID weights.
  • What is a slant?
  • Which publication is the primary source for safety and operation guidelines of E-3?
  • Describe ELS/BTH
  • What are the parameters for checking IFF Jitter during IFF sensor checkout?
  • What alert is generated when there is a conflict between system ID and a track's M5 status?
  • What is interleave?
  • Who loads the DLMB maps?
  • AMSC thresholds are __________ sensitive than BTH thresholds.
  • What is the purpose of the Datalink Tell Area?
  • Which action initiates cooperative passive tracking when another E-3 is nearby?
  • Which of the following is NOT a terminology associated with Link 11?
  • How is maximum pulse Doppler radar range measured during radar checkout?
  • BTH can be completely inoperable and MSC may still work.
  • Which MSI setting controls automatic initiation of tracking?
  • What is/are dual modes?
  • Which label describes PSV/AMS?
  • Which statement correctly relates AZ ERROR LIMIT and AZ ERROR HIGH to radar alignment deltas?
  • The optimum command angle for the PD radar in a long slant is _____
  • If you input a command angle of -4.2 degrees in the ELS/BTH, what happens to the radar?
  • This is a continuous transmission of information to other participants.
  • Which display appears with ID ambiguity due to merged tracks?
  • Which description matches LNE/MSC?
  • General knowledge of the E-3 can be found in which document?
  • The BTH radar is primarily used for coverage at which range?
  • Which label corresponds to the description Long Slant PD Non-ELSCAN Active Only; Pulse Doppler Is Off?
  • Short ELSCAN Doppler modes will generally provide your best Doppler detection.
  • The JTIDS terminal is normally configured by which aircrew member?
  • The E-3s operating frequencies fall in which RF spectrum frequency band?
  • Which description describes NEL/MSC?
  • What pattern on the display indicates uncorrelated radar EA strobes?
  • How many RF transmitters does the E-3 mission radar have?
  • The STATH range settings are updated through a Geometries Window - radar - moving/fixed sector - pulse doppler input.
  • What alert is generated for out-of-tolerance rotodome speeds?
  • True or False: A track can still be IDed using the combat ID function, even if the track's Primary ID has been manually changed?
  • Which aircrew member is normally tasked to configure the JTIDS terminal?
  • Which of the following are included in the PFI criteria?
  • Link 11 uses which two radio types?
  • What 'Track Attention' is associated with the following description: IFF/SOF Emergency received from a track squawking M3 or 7700
  • What are the minimum equipment items required to operate the IFF system?
  • What is the purpose of the Digital Land Mass Blanker (DLMB) in the system?
  • AZ ERROR HIGH is displayed when the radar/IFF alignment delta threshold is nearly reached.
  • What does an RF frequency set consist of?
  • What pattern on the display indicates radar strobes correlated to a track?
  • What alert is generated when there is ID ambiguity due to merged tracks with different IDs?
  • Which AFMAN volume is not referenced for E-3 topics?
  • Which mode is Short Slant PD non-ELSCAN active with pulse MSC?
  • During radar checkout, maximum pulse Doppler radar range measurement is based on observation of what?
  • What is the default tracking configuration of the MSI?
  • Which condition best describes the IFF jitter checking during sensor checkout?
  • What is an 'Air Mode' for the radar?
  • What alert is generated when the system detects radar or IFF EA?
  • What describes a third sensor report?
  • What is the Surveillance Network Participation Group number?
  • Which of the following is NOT a terminology associated with Link 16?
  • What is the Data Link Reference Point (DLRP)?
  • BTH is a low PRF, High power radar.
  • IFF BEAM SPLIT HIGH is displayed when the number of IFF Beam Split reports exceeds which threshold?
  • What problem does DLMB address?
  • Which statement about BTH range and operation is true?
  • What does PU stand for in Link 11 terminology?
  • Uncorrelated radar EA strobes will appear as ______ lines.
  • Which alert is generated when rotodome speeds are out of tolerance?
  • Data Link Reference Point (DLRP) Identifies The Reference Point For Which Link?
  • What is the optimum rotodome rotation rate?
  • For the PD radar, what is the long-slant optimum command angle?
  • In an ID matrix setting, which friendly contributor(s) could be enabled with a High Primary ID Weight in the active combat ID ruleset?
  • Detection occurs when the signal strength is greater than the CFAR detection threshold assigned by the operator.
  • A new detection opportunity occurs every how many seconds?
  • What is common to all the PD radar modes when the Pulse radar is in MSC mode?
  • Which mode is associated with AMS or MSC pulse components?
  • What percentage defines the IFF BEAM SPLIT LIMIT?
  • Which aircrew members are normally tasked to establish Link 16?
  • Which label describes ELS/AMS?
  • Interrogating all other units in a Link 11 net is a function of which role?
  • Which document would you reference for general knowledge about the E-3?
  • What publication defines on-station requirements?
  • The assessment of overall air picture quality is the primary factor in determining the optimum RF set. True or False?
  • What cabinet holds the IFF hardware?
  • What is the default E-3 radar mode?
  • What 'Track Attention' is associated with the following description: This is displayed on an ambiguous track(s) that has the best kinematic match to an IFF Mode 5 Lethal interrogation response and has been assigned a M5 Lethal reply.
  • The operator can find a list of all local and remote EA and Jamming requests in which window?
  • Which Mode 5 format CANNOT be continuously interrogated?
  • What is the Track Number (TN)?
  • What is a 'Maritime mode' for the radar?
  • Which label describes PSV/BTH?
  • Which label describes PSV/PSV?
  • This is the normal mode with pickets responding to DNCS polling.
  • Adjusting the IFF power level affects which subsystem?
  • Which rotodome rotation-rate threshold triggers the status display?
  • DLMB compression is used when?
  • Which parameter defines the rotation rate of the rotodome?
  • What is the optimum ground speed for radar operations?
  • Which factor is the primary consideration when selecting the optimum RF set for the radar system?
  • Which mode is Long Slant PD non-ELSCAN active with Pulse-MSC active?
  • A track with an ID of Unknown was interrogated with Mode 5 and did not reply with a response. The Mode 5 contributor is weighted as high in the active combat ruleset - there are no other contributors fulfilled. What will happen to the Track ID?
  • What slant type provides the best Doppler?
  • The Pulse Doppler Radar in which mode will not transmit a pulse but will receive and process pulses and environment signals?
  • You'll use low velocity detection (LVD) to detect low range rate targets.
  • What type of radar wake-up could the ABM recommend due to time constraints in order to reduce the time of radar power-up?
  • Low velocity detection is used to detect targets with what characteristic?
  • Can the combat ID function ID a track if the track's Primary ID has been changed manually?
  • A track with a contributor weighted as low in the active combat ID ruleset will be changed to the ID of the friend, assuming there are no other contributors fulfilled.
  • Which AFMAN volume is not among the volumes referenced for E-3 topics?
  • Which statement describes the capacity of RF frequency sets per radar chain?
  • Which label describes ELS/PSV?
  • What is an area where tracking is prohibited?
  • This is used to synchronize units for establishing a net or troubleshooting.
  • Which two components are used to specify tracking permissions?
  • Two E-3s must both be operating in either ___ or ___ to establish cooperative passive tracking via PAD.
  • In a Passive PSV configuration, what capability remains?
  • Which term stands for the Data Link Reference Point used in Link 11?
  • BTH uses the Doppler frequency sift for Target Detection.
  • What are the PD long slant radar modes?
  • Target eclipsing is defined as the radar failing to detect a target in one PRF because the transmitter is pulsed on at the same time the target return is received.
  • The ABM cannot modify the contributors and primary ID weights in the ___ combat ID ruleset.
  • Which document provides general knowledge of the E-3?
  • Which label describes OFF/AMS?
  • What is a third sensor report?
  • Two detections with very similar Doppler shift and azimuth location and close in range are probable multipath detections from a single target.
  • What encryption device provides Link 11 with secure transmission and reception?
  • How many RF frequency sets are each radar chain capable of generating/transmitting?
  • Which label describes OFF/BTH?
  • How is range resolution increased for BTH?
  • (T/F) Either RT can be configured with either KIV.
  • What are the optimum E-3 flight parameters for radar operators?
  • What 'Track Attention' is associated with the following description: This is displayed each time a M5 Lethal response is received from a track.
  • Target eclipsing results in the radar failing to detect a target in one PRF because the transmitter is pulsed on at the same time the target return is received.
  • Which statement about BTH radar is true?
  • What will ABMT do to fulfill their responsibilities for Recognize?
  • What alert is generated when PDA is enabled and Mission Computing detects loss of PDA data or invalid data?
  • In general, radar modes with short slant Doppler operation will produce the best pulse detection.
  • Which statement describes the PSV mode for the Pulse Doppler Radar?
  • What Track Attention Display occurs when a hostile ID request has been made?
  • What is the PU Number?
  • What does Second Time Around Detection do to the system?
  • How does the pulse radar attain acceptable range resolution?
  • Which of the following is true about the two applications that can hold SIF data for Mode 2?
  • DLRN stands for which term in Link 11 terminology?
  • Which publication lists on-station requirements?
  • The designation Fox 2-5 refers to which aspect of the system?
  • The DLMB stands for Digital Land Mass Blanker.
  • An RF frequency set consists of how many frequencies, and what are their purposes?
  • What modes can be placed in the A/B/G fields?
  • The blanking field statement: The blanking field sets a minimum amplitude that low velocity targets must exceed in order to be displayed.
  • Changing radar frequencies between sectors is encouraged.
  • Which aircrew member is normally tasked to configure the JTIDS terminal?
  • The optimum command angle of the BTH radar is ____
  • What are used to specify tracking permissions?
  • In a Link 11 network, all Participating Units (PUs) are responsible for ____.
  • What is the optimum altitude for radar operations?
  • What 'Track Attention' is associated with the following description: Displayed on ambiguous track(s) that are not the best kinematic match to an IFF M5 Lethal interrogation response.
  • What is the BTH radar's height finding capability?
  • What is the relationship between land clutter and DLMB?
  • Which link combinations enable cooperative passive tracking via PAD?
  • AZ ERROR LIMIT is displayed when which condition occurs?
  • How many MSC maritime radar modes are there?
  • KG-40A encryption device is used to secure transmissions for which link?
  • What are the two types of radios used by Link 11?
  • What is the TKD?
  • What information in the Sensor Counts Window helps identify and counter EA from the BTH Radar?
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